I took my car to a Mazda dealer to get its 30K mile service and the dealer said I had more 80% brakes left on the front, but less than 10% on the rear. They quoted a $200+ service on it ($90 for brakes, $100+ for labor). I thought this was really puzzling because much of the car's weight is usually on the front axle when braking. I called a friend who is much more knowledgeable about cars and he told me to ask the mechanic if the rear calipers were dragging. The dealer said nothing was abnormal with the calipers, but Mazda adjusted the brake bias on newer Mazdas to the rear.
Is this true? And if so, would there be such a large disparity in brake wear? I really don't want to spend another $200 on top of the $339 service, especially when I'm going to spend another $300 on a new set of tires soon.
Thanks in advance for your advice.
Edit: Is there a way I can check myself? Should I feel it during driving?
Is this true? And if so, would there be such a large disparity in brake wear? I really don't want to spend another $200 on top of the $339 service, especially when I'm going to spend another $300 on a new set of tires soon.
Thanks in advance for your advice.
Edit: Is there a way I can check myself? Should I feel it during driving?
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